For the life of me, what's the point of the "free offer"? How is it supposed to manifest the "wideness in God's mercy" on those whom Himself wills to harden, according to His sovereign good pleasure? Where does it ever say in the Bible that Christ was anointed to preach the potentially good news BOTH to the [spiritually] rich AND to the poor [in spirit]? Or that He came to call BOTH the self-righteous AND sinners to repentance? Some Calvinists seem bent on defending the indefensible. SMH...
"The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel 𝙩𝙤 𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙥𝙤𝙤𝙧.."(Lk.4:18)
"I came 𝙣𝙤𝙩 to call the righteous, 𝙗𝙪𝙩 sinners to repentance". (Lk.5:32)
"He hath filled the hungry with good things; 𝙖𝙣𝙙 𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙧𝙞𝙘𝙝 𝙝𝙚 𝙝𝙖𝙩𝙝 𝙨𝙚𝙣𝙩 𝙚𝙢𝙥𝙩𝙮 𝙖𝙬𝙖𝙮 .. (Lk.1:53)
"At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, 𝙗𝙚𝙘𝙖𝙪𝙨𝙚 𝙩𝙝𝙤𝙪 𝙝𝙖𝙨𝙩 𝙝𝙞𝙙 𝙩𝙝𝙚𝙨𝙚 𝙩𝙝𝙞𝙣𝙜𝙨 𝙛𝙧𝙤𝙢 𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙬𝙞𝙨𝙚 𝙖𝙣𝙙 𝙥𝙧𝙪𝙙𝙚𝙣𝙩, and hast revealed them unto babes. 𝗘𝘃𝗲𝗻 𝘀𝗼, 𝗙𝗮𝘁𝗵𝗲𝗿: 𝗳𝗼𝗿 𝘀𝗼 𝗶𝘁 𝘀𝗲𝗲𝗺𝗲𝗱 𝗴𝗼𝗼𝗱 𝗶𝗻 𝘁𝗵𝘆 𝘀𝗶𝗴𝗵𝘁". (Mt.11:24,25)
"But our God is in the heavens: he hath done 𝙬𝙝𝙖𝙩𝙨𝙤𝙚𝙫𝙚𝙧 𝙝𝙚 𝙝𝙖𝙩𝙝 𝙥𝙡𝙚𝙖𝙨𝙚𝙙". (Ps.115:3)